With the problem 2/(1-i) * (1+i)/(1+i),

since (1+i)/(1+i) cancels out to a one, if you multiply one times 2/(1-i), don't you just get 2(1-i)??

For some reason, the answer is l+i.

Why can't you just make (1+i)/(1+i) equal one?

With the problem 2/(1-i) * (1+i)/(1+i),

since (1+i)/(1+i) cancels out to a one, if you multiply one times 2/(1-i), don't you just get 2(1-i)??

For some reason, the answer is l+i.

Why can't you just make (1+i)/(1+i) equal one?

since (1+i)/(1+i) cancels out to a one, if you multiply one times 2/(1-i), don't you just get 2(1-i)??

For some reason, the answer is l+i.

Why can't you just make (1+i)/(1+i) equal one?

- stapel_eliz
**Posts:**1743**Joined:**Mon Dec 08, 2008 4:22 pm-
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monjinho wrote:...if you multiply one times 2/(1-i), don't you just get 2(1-i)??

How are you getting that dividing by 1 - i is the same as multiplying by 1 - i?

Instead, try rationalizing the denominator. Don't cancel first; multiply out the denominator. What do you get?