Hi all,
Is it possible to rearrange this equation in terms of n
an = b * ( (1-r^n) / (1-r) )
Its just beyond me!
a is always much greater than b in this case.
Thanks
Adam
"Possible"? Yes. "Reasonably feasible"? No.Is it possible to rearrange this equation in terms of n
an = b * ( (1-r^n) / (1-r) )