a

^{2}(a

^{2}-b

^{2})

b

^{2}(a-b)

We don't need to distribute the a

^{2}or b

^{2}. I'm just wondering if you could divide the (a

^{2}-b

^{2}) by the (a-b)? Is that possible? Is it allowed? And would the quotient be (a+b)? One of the answers on the answer sheet (it's one of those corny Punchline joke worksheets) is:

a

^{2}(a+b)

b

^{2}

Would that be the simplified answer of my question above, if those two terms were to be divided?

Thanks!