In my math class right now, we're learning about multiplying rationals, which is basically multiplying fractions with variables in them. I got this as an answer to a question, but I'm not sure if it's simplified all the way:
We don't need to distribute the a2 or b2. I'm just wondering if you could divide the (a2-b2) by the (a-b)? Is that possible? Is it allowed? And would the quotient be (a+b)? One of the answers on the answer sheet (it's one of those corny Punchline joke worksheets) is:
Would that be the simplified answer of my question above, if those two terms were to be divided?